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>was
Current year is 2021, and it's the year of your pathetic defeat...
Get used to it faggotard...
They’re not the same thing you retard. Simple question, do the US government, or any state governments, officially consider Elon Musk to be upper class? Of course not, because governments do not define social classes, society defines social classes. Who defines die Oberschicht in Germany? That’s right, the German federal government. Do you know why the German federal government and not society defines die Oberschicht? Because die Oberschicht is an economic class (a tax band basically), not a social class, and thus not comparable to the social classes we were discussing.
Colonials’ ignorance of the world around them is usually pretty embarrassing at the best of times. Monolingual colonials trying to understand the intricacies of European tongues is quite amusing though. C+ for effort.
> Simple question, do the US government, or any state governments, officially consider Elon Musk to be upper class?
https://www.moneycrashers.com/middle-class-america-definition-income-range-jobs/
According to the U.S. Census Bureau, the median household income for the United States was $53,657 in 2014, so you would expect middle-class people to have income somewhere around this level. However, economists don’t all agree on how close to the median income you actually have to be to qualify as middle class.
Several possible ways have been proposed to define the middle class based on median income:
Middle Quintile. One particularly narrow definition limits the middle class to households in the middle quintile for income – that is, those who make more than the poorest 40% of Americans and less than the richest 40%. That definition would put the income range for the middle class between $41,187 and $68,212.
Middle Three Quintiles. The problem with the middle-quintile rule is that it automatically limits the size of the middle class to exactly 20% of the population. A broader definition would include everyone but the poorest 20% and the richest 20%. Under this rule, any household with an income between $21,433 and $112,262 would qualify as middle-class.
The Reich Rule. U.S. News cites an in-between definition proposed by Former Secretary of Labor Robert Reich. He suggests defining the middle class as everyone with incomes 50% lower to 50% higher than the median – that is, between 50% and 150% of the median income. Under this rule, a middle-class household could make anywhere from $26,829 to $80,485.
The Pew Formula. Social scientists at the Pew Research Center use a more complex formula. First, they adjust household income based on family size, on the theory that each dollar goes further for a small family than for a large one. They use these size-adjusted incomes to calculate a new median income of around $61,000. Finally, they define “middle income” households as making between two-thirds and twice the median income – $40,667 to $122,000. However, Pew researchers make a point of saying that their middle-income group isn’t exactly the same as the middle class, since their definition doesn’t factor in wealth, education, occupation, or social values.
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Hm
You lose again you miserable sack of shit
However, economists don’t all agree on how close to the median income you actually have to be to qualify as middle class.
governments do not define social classes, society defines social classes.
So firstly, obviously economists are not the government. Secondly, the one government agency you quoted merely specified the median income, and compared to other sections of society. From this Pew and some economists tried (but failed) to define classes, in North America. The government make no attempt to define classes in your source, which yet again does not say what you seem to think it does. Do you read what you post first or just post blind? Or more worryingly, are you unable to understand what you post?
And now, most importantly, we’re talking about social class in Europe, not in the colonies. My first question was what does upper class mean in North America, and stated what it meant in Europe. This is the third time you’ve done this, and the third you’ve been called a retard for doing it. It obviously means a different thing in the colonies, that’s how this conversation started. To keep using colonial definitions to define european use of the terms in light of how this conversation started is therefore obviously pointless. To do it repeatedly is obviously retarded.
(post is archived)