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Been hearing about it for years but never anything specific or in depth. I’m about 1/2 way through it and it actually seems like absolute required reading for any later based content on the JQ. How they established themselves and the patterns they proved about their culture in that 200 years in a single country without getting expelled was the deciding factor in their history it seems. They always seemed to get expelled before they get that far in other country’s but Russia just non stop tolerated and compromised for them right into the 1904 Revolution. What’s weird about the book is that even after the 3 part gulag archipelago about how 66 million were massacred, and specifically saying numerous times the entire soviet leadership was jewish, then writing the 200 year history about how they never assimilated in any way, refused to take part in any manual labour or enriching the land, did almost nothing but middle man their way into usury every chance they got, then when the locals gave them direct push back they immediately went WAY farther then the goy’s did and assasinated major leaders and politicians when none of their leaders were ever targeted. But after writing about 200 years of this, as soon as the conflict got heated back and forth from both sides Alexander Solzhenitsyn immediately splits the blame and starts contexting the conflict as both parties being equally guilty and highlights both sides mistakes equally. Not to be a light switch brain absolutist, but at no point when describing the Russians opposition to the revolutionaries does he make the case for their justified cumulative anger after 200 years with a ppl that did every single thing to make sure they never experienced a day of true equality.

I don’t think the author can have the knowledge he has and come to the conclusion that the pogroms weren’t totally justified after 200 years. Is he just a shill?

Been hearing about it for years but never anything specific or in depth. I’m about 1/2 way through it and it actually seems like absolute required reading for any later based content on the JQ. How they established themselves and the patterns they proved about their culture in that 200 years in a single country without getting expelled was the deciding factor in their history it seems. They always seemed to get expelled before they get that far in other country’s but Russia just non stop tolerated and compromised for them right into the 1904 Revolution. What’s weird about the book is that even after the 3 part gulag archipelago about how 66 million were massacred, and specifically saying numerous times the entire soviet leadership was jewish, then writing the 200 year history about how they never assimilated in any way, refused to take part in any manual labour or enriching the land, did almost nothing but middle man their way into usury every chance they got, then when the locals gave them direct push back they immediately went WAY farther then the goy’s did and assasinated major leaders and politicians when none of their leaders were ever targeted. But after writing about 200 years of this, as soon as the conflict got heated back and forth from both sides Alexander Solzhenitsyn immediately splits the blame and starts contexting the conflict as both parties being equally guilty and highlights both sides mistakes equally. Not to be a light switch brain absolutist, but at no point when describing the Russians opposition to the revolutionaries does he make the case for their justified cumulative anger after 200 years with a ppl that did every single thing to make sure they never experienced a day of true equality. I don’t think the author can have the knowledge he has and come to the conclusion that the pogroms weren’t totally justified after 200 years. Is he just a shill?

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[–] • 1 pt (edited )

In fairness, I’ve only read volume 1 of The Gulag archipelago , and for this book I’m just chapter 15 into the audiobook. But as for your question, I think I understand what you’re asking. And to be honest, i’m not getting that from the author at all, at least not yet. In chapter 13, after laying out the largest string of facts for the jews having never integrated or contributed physically and never experienced any pogrom by the Russians where the jews weren’t violent 1st. He flat out states that “the 1905 revolution wasn’t something the jews perpetrated on russians, but rather something the Russians perpetrated on the jews”........ I’m not joking. Like even after 1000s of pages written about the disproportionate crimes by jews against Russians, he keeps judging the actual conflicts between them by the immediate actions of each party at the present time. And expresses no sympathy or consideration for Russians actions after those same 200 years of victimhood he just described.

In chapter 15 he starts out by saying “there’s no way to blame the Jews for Lenin, because he was plainly Russian”. But then immediately goes on to list Lenin’s parents and grandparents where his grandfather was jewish..... and says it’s because “Russians cant be excluded from Lenin’s make up.”... Then goes on to elaborate how after 200 years of being the least integrated ppl group in the world or just Russia’s history, they’ve been in Russia so long how can it not be considered a purely Russian phenomenon. Not talking into consideration that they had been evicted from countries over 1000+ times by the time he published that book in 2001.....

I’m honestly starting to get the feeling Alexander Solzhenitsyn books are just a type of disclosure op.there must have been a reason the NKVD didn’t assassinating him in exile or the KGB even after he returned. His contrast between evidence and conclusion is so extreme it’s hard not to call it gaslighting imo. It’s more then just trying to make the “both sides” argument imo. He has no sympathy for Russian victims of jewish oppression in the 17-1800s. I thought this book would be even harder on jews then the Gulag, but it actually seems the other way around. The Gulag describes the crimes, but all you have to do is deny they were all Jews to get away with it, this book doesn’t describe worse crimes, but I think they chose to shelve this one because it makes an undeniable case that the jews were the only ppl in Russia that could have produced the red revolution genocide, and that the Russians weren’t even capable of something like that, upon themselves or others. Despite the “both sides” larping the author insists on.

[–] • 0 pt (edited )

Interesting. So could very well be Talmudic karma release valve; ie- to offload guilt via disclosure while at the same time smearing/dilluting the message & as you say gaslighting. Watered down truth mixed in with contradictions and intentional psyc-warfare black pills seem par for the course; about as good as we can get other than more direct leaks ( Protocols ?? ) or first hand evidence.

Thanks again for the insightful analysis. It's encouraging because we, on the verge of another red revolution, need this kind of in-depth analysis of available material to understand where this is headed and how fast; I'm not sure how to draw conclusions on those things necessarily but if anything to quote another friend it is best to: "get self-sustaining real quick"; it seems the epicenter will once again be in the cities and this time it appears they are doing all or most cities worldwide all at the same time.

@Energy-in-Motion

[–] • 1 pt

No problem. But ya, something like that (disclosure op). I’m not some learned elder of history or jewish history, but it simply doesn’t seem possible to have that knowledge and come to the conclusion pogroms weren’t perfectly understandable and justified. He’s either lying or he’s jewish.