Behold, I will make them of the synagogue of Satan, which say they are jews Judeans, and are not, but do lie; behold, I will make them to come and worship before thy feet, and to know that I have loved thee.
Revelation 3:9
King James Version
- As is proven in the source below the use of "jew" is incorrect and a malicious mistranslation. This point will not be argued further but will be sourced in detail below.
- We all know specifically WHO it is when "the synagogue of satan" is mentioned. It's not confusing to anyone.
- With the above understanding I've fixed the translation into it's truest possible meaning.
- As we all know "jews" claim that they were horribly oppressed at the time. As we can glean from this and any cursory glance of historical texts of Christianity we know for a fact that it is not the "jews" (pharisees) who are enduring hardships but it is the Judeans (People of Judea).
MUCH more proof than necessary below;
First we must understand - as anyone with a brainstem does - that the word "jew" is new. From 1775.
Jesus was not "the king of jews". The cross did not say that;
jews were not Judeans, judaism was not around in Jesus' time etc;
Further full read;
I suggest you ALL read the above 3 sources and understand them well. They are must-know piece of information. There is little more important. This information unravels the entirety of the jewish lie.
All of it.
And the significant VAST majority of poal doesn't understand even a small bit of this and this is sad and must be remedied.
What can be gained from the bit about Rev 3:9 is just how (((damaged))) any and all sources of Biblical information have become.
The KJV Bible is oft regarded as the most comprehensive and correct translation.
But it uses a word from 1775.
What else is (((changed)))?
>Behold, I will make them of the synagogue of Satan, which say they are ~~jews~~ Judeans, and are not, but do lie; behold, I will make them to come and worship before thy feet, and to know that I have loved thee.
>>Revelation 3:9
>>King James Version
1. As is proven in the source below the use of "jew" is incorrect and a malicious mistranslation. This point will not be argued further but will be sourced in detail below.
2. We all know specifically WHO it is when "the synagogue of satan" is mentioned. It's not confusing to anyone.
3. With the above understanding I've fixed the translation into it's truest possible meaning.
4. As we all know "jews" claim that they were horribly oppressed at the time. As we can glean from this and any cursory glance of historical texts of Christianity we know for a fact that it is not the "jews" (pharisees) who are enduring hardships but it is the Judeans (People of Judea).
**MUCH more proof than necessary below;**
First we must understand - as anyone with a brainstem does - that the word "jew" is new. From 1775.
>[It is an incontestable fact that the word "Jew" did not come into existence until the year 1775. Prior to 1775 the word "Jew" did not exist in any language. The word "Jew" was introduced into the English for the first time in the 18th century when Sheridan used it in his play "The Rivals", II,i, "She shall have a skin like a mummy, and the beard of a Jew". Prior to this use of the word "Jew" in the English language by Sheridan in 1775 the word "Jew" had not become a word in the English language. Shakespeare never saw the word "Jew" as you will see. Shakespeare never used the word "Jew" in any of his works, the common general belief to the contrary notwithstanding. In his "Merchant of Venice", V.III.i.61, Shakespeare wrote as follows: "what is the reason? I am a Iewe, hath not a Iewe eyes?"](https://archive.md/Miepk)
Jesus was **not** "the king of jews". The cross did **not** say that;
>[During His lifetime here on earth Jesus was not regarded by Pontius Pilate nor by the Judeans among whom He dwelt as "King of the Jews". The inscription on the Cross upon which Jesus was Crucified has been incorrectly translated into the English language only since the 18th century. Pontius Pilate was ironic and sarcastic when he ordered inscribed upon the Cross the Latin words "Iesus Nazarenus Rex Iudeorum". About to be Crucified, with the approval of Pontius Pilate, Jesus was being mocked by Pontius Pilate. Pontius Pilate was well aware at that time that Jesus had been denounced, defied and denied by the Judeans who alas finally brought about His Crucifixion as related by history.](https://archive.md/Miepk)
jews were not Judeans, judaism was not around in Jesus' time etc;
>[To allege that "Jesus was a Jew" in the sense that during His lifetime Jesus professed and practiced the form of religious worship known and practiced under the modern name of "Judaism" is false and fiction of the most blasphemous nature. If to be a so-called or self-styled "Jew" then or now the practice of "Judaism" was a requirement then Jesus certainly was not a so-called "Jew". Jesus abhorred and denounced the form of religious worship practiced in Judea in His lifetime and which is known and practiced today under its new name "Judaism". That religious belief was then known as "Pharisaism". The Christian clergy learned that in their theological seminary days but they have never made any attempt to make that clear to Christians.](https://archive.md/Miepk)
[The eminent Rabbi Louis Finkelstein, the head of The Jewish Theological Seminary of America, often referred to as "The Vatican of Judaism", in his Foreword to his First Edition of his world-famous classic "The Pharisees, The Sociological Background of Their Faith", on page XXI states:](https://archive.md/Miepk)
>>[" . . . Judaism . . . Pharisaism became Talmudism, Talmudism became Medieval Rabbinism, and Medieval Rabbinism became Modern Rabbinism. But throughout these changes in name . . . the spirit of the ancient Pharisees survives, unaltered . . . From Palestine to Babylonia; from Babylonia to North Africa, Italy, Spain, France and Germany; from these to Poland, Russia, and eastern Europe generally, ancient Pharisaism has wandered . . . demonstrates the enduring importance which attaches to Pharisaism as a religious movement . . ."](https://archive.md/Miepk)
Further full read;
[FACTS ARE FACTS – I - jews are not Judeans but are Pharisees](https://archive.md/Miepk)
[FACTS ARE FACTS – II - jews are not Judeans but are Pharisees](https://archive.md/iCJKP)
[FACTS ARE FACTS – III - jews are not Judeans but are Pharisees](https://archive.md/V7ony)
I suggest you ALL read the above 3 sources and understand them well. They are must-know piece of information. There is little more important. This information unravels the entirety of the jewish lie.
All of it.
And the significant VAST majority of poal doesn't understand even a small bit of this and this is sad and must be remedied.
What can be gained from the bit about Rev 3:9 is just how (((damaged))) any and all sources of Biblical information have become.
The KJV Bible is oft regarded as the most comprehensive and correct translation.
But it uses a word from 1775.
What else is (((changed)))?
(post is archived)