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About time, as the school can not sweep this crap under the rug. lets see if the school attempts to impede a investigation, there is a charge for that crap.

About time, as the school can not sweep this crap under the rug. lets see if the school attempts to impede a investigation, there is a charge for that crap.

(post is archived)

[–] 0 pt

Nope, plain 'Murican. That doesn't answer my question, though. Why is the guy "Jewish" and not just a Jew?

[–] 0 pt (edited )

You completely missed my point... it is because of the English language and how it goes together, that's why.

From Dictionary.com Ish - a suffix used to form adjectives from nouns, with the sense of “belonging to” (British; Danish; English; Spanish); “after the manner of,” “ ...

[–] 0 pt

True, an Englishman is "English" but a person from Denmark is a "Dane" while someone from Spain is a Spaniard. A person from Germany is just a plain "German" so why isn't a Jew just a Jew?

[–] 0 pt (edited )

Why does Chinese have 4 tones? Why does Hebrew read right to left? Why does Spanish assign a gender to everything, inanimate or not? Why do people speak in ebonics?

English as a language has more exceptions to the rules than rules, most native speakers know this, and we can tell English as a second language people from the native educated in the usa by those small idiosyncrasies that were drilled into our heads 1st-4th grade. As a non native speaker would not be exposed and it sticks out like a sore thumb. Probably why some of the populace speaks ebonics becuase the rules were too hard to remember.

Ps - I could tell you exactly why, but I chose not to.