Hold up. Does this mean that if 1.6% of Americans owned slaves and 1.25% of Americas were both slave owners and were Jewish, then logically that means the remaining 0.35% of Americans owned slaves and weren't Jewish. Therefore, 1.25%/1.6% = 78.125% of American slave owners were Jewish. Am I correct on this? I know the reason why this would be true. Muslims controlled the world wide slave trade. A Muslim is forbidden by Sharia from trading with Free Christians and thus they used Dhimmi Jews to be middle men. Dhimmi status in Sharia is a semi-slave conquered state which allows Muslims to engage in trade with a non-Muslim who feels themselves conquered and obedient to Islam. The Jews accepted Dhimmi status, thus could buy the slaves cheap and then bring them to the Americas where Muslims were forbidden. Sugar, Tabaco and cotton were completely controlled by Jews.