They were factually the majority of slave owners, but their overall population was much less than the 3.125% as shown in your meme.

https://www.census.gov/history/pdf/1910-1911amjewishyearbook.pdf

The 1850 census recorded the population of the US as 23 million with 50,000 jews.

JEWS WERE .02% OF THE POPULATION. (one 500th OF 1% in 1850) ....and yet they owned 40% of all slaves. ...and not just nigger slaves. They owned Indentured Servants from Ireland, Scotland, France and indigenous workers.

The statistics of Jews in the world rest largely upon estimates.

In Russia, Austria-Hungary, Germany, and a few other countries, official figures are obtainable. In the main, however, the numbers given are based upon estimates repeated and added to by one statistical authority after another. For the statistics given below various authorities have been consulted, among them the "Statesman's Year Book" for 1910, the English "Jewish Year Book" for 5670-71, "The Jewish Encyclopedia," Jildische Statistik, and the Alliance Israelite Universelle reports.

THE UNITED STATES ESTIMATES As the census of the United States has, in accordance with the spirit of American institutions, taken no heed of the religious convictions of American citizens, whether native-born or naturalized, all statements concerning the number of Jews living in this country are based upon estimates.

The Jewish population was estimated— In 1818 by Mordecai M. Noah at 3,000 In 1824 by Solomon Etting at 6,000 In 1826 by Isaac C. Harby at 6,000 In 1840 by the American Almanac at 15,000 In 1848 by M. A. Berk at 50,000 In 1880 by Wm. B. Hackenburg at 230,257 In 1888 by Isaac Markens at 400,000 In 1897 by David Sulzberger at 937,800 In 1905 by "The Jewish Encyclopedia" at 1,508,435 In 1907 by "The American Jewish Year Book" at 1,777,185 In 1910 by "The American Je\rish Year Book" at 2,044,762

White people ENDED slavery. We made it illegal. The jews have been in the slave trade for 5,800 years.

Now you know why the jews hate White people.

Hold up. Does this mean that if 1.6% of Americans owned slaves and 1.25% of Americas were both slave owners and were Jewish, then logically that means the remaining 0.35% of Americans owned slaves and weren't Jewish. Therefore, 1.25%/1.6% = 78.125% of American slave owners were Jewish. Am I correct on this?

I know the reason why this would be true. Muslims controlled the world wide slave trade. A Muslim is forbidden by Sharia from trading with Free Christians and thus they used Dhimmi Jews to be middle men. Dhimmi status in Sharia is a semi-slave conquered state which allows Muslims to engage in trade with a non-Muslim who feels themselves conquered and obedient to Islam. The Jews accepted Dhimmi status, thus could buy the slaves cheap and then bring them to the Americas where Muslims were forbidden. Sugar, Tabaco and cotton were completely controlled by Jews.

were blacks considered americans at the time? like are they part of the 97% or would the fact that they are slaves not have them be included?