and decided to rid his people of the Jews
He didn't, at least not at first. He came to that opinion slowly and with hesitation. We know now that, at least at first, he had a number of jews serving him as advisors, in his military, etc.
It is possible he knew something we didn't (apostasy is a thing amongst jews), but don't forget that, of those who go rogue, a purge of their brass is always on the menu (Hitler's is supposedly the Night of Long Knives; Mao/Kim Jong/Stalin famously had ones too), so these jews were known and allowed to stay.
That doesnt sound like "trained and groomed by Jews" to me.
The biggest evidence is that he was allowed to be elected at all. Germany was a global haven for jews since around the end of Wilhem's reign, and their primary method of maintaining control of a 'democracy' is through false elections. This isn't a new concept to us - faked elections in America go all of the way back to Lincoln's election in 1864 (jews used the same mail-in plot we just saw this year over 150 years ago) (washingtonpost.com).
This is how they keep control of their vassal states, and Germany, as Britian, was their vassal state at the time. Hitler wouldn't have been *allowed* to win if he wasn't okayed by them.
In a way, he tried to "work within the system to defeat the system" until he decided it was time to do his own thing.
(post is archived)