made Germany better instead of attacking their neighboring countries.
They did make Germany better, then they set off to make better the lives of the German people who had found themselves annexed into other countries...followed by Jewish warmongering against them.
Does anyone know why it was wrong for Germany to invade Poland but right for the USSR to invade Poland twice?
It's wrong to invade any country in most cases. Hitler loved history and he was angry at Polaks for the Teutonic Knights and their Grandmaster's loss to the Polish King Jabolonsky at Tannenberg in1410. Had the Germans won we would all be speaking German all the way to Russia. Czechs for example had 4 crusades set upon them because they dared to stand up against the Holy Roman Empire. Jan Hus was burned at the stake in Constantinople for just wanting to have a slightly more open Christianity. Czech is made up of three ancient kingdoms, Bohemia, Moravia and Silesia. The land they had was always theirs, except for the 500 years that they were under the Hapsburgs in the Austrian Hungarian Empire. Why did Hitler just not attack Czech? Why did he negotiate his way into the country? Because he armed 33 divisions with Czech weaponry and also stole their ČKD LT vz. 38 tanks and renamed them Panzerkampfwagen 38(t) which he used to attack France. The Germans needed Czechs to surrender otherwise Hitlers war machine would have ended at the Czech-German border. By no means would the Czechs stand a chance but they did have amazing fortifications and the Germans would have taken heavy losses at a time when their war machine was very light. As far as Polaks, well they got wasted trying to fight Germans on horseback. Then impatient Hitler decided to attack the Russians in the winter and the backstabbing Russians sold us all out. Russians got a taste of German superior tactics, discipline and weaponry and the Germans got a taste of Russian endurance. They both got what they deserved. As I said, Hitler should have stayed at home. As far as Hitler going to war because of annexed German citizens, don't know what you mean and yes the USSR did invade Poland, hence the backstabbing Russians and they got what they deserved. Instead of helping Czechs and Poland they made backroom deals with Hitler.
Then impatient Hitler decided to attack the Russians in the winter
I thought it was an open secret that Hitler decided to attack the Russians then because he knew if he waited then the Russians would attack him first?
As far as Hitler going to war because of annexed German citizens, don't know what you mean
After WW1, the Allies redrew the boundaries to give Poland and France parts of Germany, and Germany decided to rescue them, similar-ish to what Putin did with the Ukraine.
Why didn't the Czechs just ally with the Germans to begin with? And speaking German from Germany to Russia doesn't sound like a bad idea to me.
Bohemia (Czech) was also much larger in the past with it's borders shrunk by the Holy Roman Empire. Do they get to attack Germany for past borders? The fact is every country in Europe had their borders changed over the 2400 year history there. As far as Czechs allying with Germans, the question is why would they? Wasn't 500 years under the Habsburgs enough? Are they allowed to be their own people too or is that reserved only for Germans. If you think Germans had the "right" to attack other countries for perceived injustices than I think this is incorrect, especially over minor border changes. Hitler was advised to not attack Russia until the spring but went against recommendations because he was overly confident. it ended up being a disaster for him and his war effort. Either way I don't feel any animosity towards Germans and do think they were right to rebel against the way they were treated after the war and made into second class citizens in Europe. I blame the English and the French. They were the cause of WW2 in my opinion but Hitler should have stayed out of Czech.
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