1611KJV literally uses the same English words when the words in Greek are different, indicating to the English reader that the author means the same thing in cases where he clearly meant different things. Just look at the word “world” in John 3:16; he doesn’t mean “everyone in the world,” because the Greek word used elsewhere in the scripts when saying “everyone in the world” is different than the one used in John 3:16.
That’s not even to say that the translations are necessarily malicious, but to imply that there can be a 100% exact translation between two lengthy manuscripts in different languages is just absurd regardless of the texts or the languages. Not everything translates directly
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