Additionally, the term αναμάρτητος has a legal weight to it, a violation of the law. He who can execute her without violating the law, go for it. Which law? Roman law or Levitical law?
I would contend it is referring to Gods law.
You do present some interesting points, but we only have what is there, and to me the absence of the man seems significant.
I believe the word choice in the Greek makes it clear he was intentionally throwing their own conundrum back at them.
As for the man, he wasn’t key to this event. Interestingly, the adulterous woman was given basically the same expectation as her accusers - “Go and sin no more.”
That said, in the end, a violation of either law would be a violation of God’s law. If they defied Levitical Law (the law given to Moses by God), they directly disobeyed God, as they were expected to follow. If they defied Roman Law, they thwarted the judgment and punishment of the Roman occupation God set upon them for their national apostasy.
Yet another example of how the original Greek language has layers the English can’t even begin to reach.
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