Now explain how bringing communism/socialism to latin American countries is NOT a long history of (((interfering with latin American countries)))? You can't argue that the US has interfered with latin America without acknowledging the interference of (((communists and socialists))) in the first place.
Socialist interference by free elections:
As reflected in the briefing paper, Kissinger’s key concern about Allende was that he had been freely elected, leaving the United States with little latitude to openly oppose his government as illegitimate, and setting a precedent that other nations might follow. Allende’s “model effect can be insidious,” Kissinger warned: “The example of a successful elected Marxist government in Chile would surely have an impact on—and even precedent value for—other parts of the world, especially in Italy; the imitative spread of similar phenomena elsewhere would in turn significantly affect the world balance and our own position in it.”
https://nsarchive.gwu.edu/briefing-book/chile/2020-11-06/allende-inauguration-50th-anniversary
As reflected in the briefing paper, Kissinger’s key concern about Allende was that he had been freely elected
(((freely elected)))
Just because you don't see the jew's hand in the process does not mean that the jew hand didn't manipulate the process. Kikessinger was simply distracting you with his right hand while he and other kikes pulled the strings with the left. There would never have been a marxist government in Chile if (((marxists))) hadn't created such a thing in the first place. The jew is always there to manipulate both the process and the narrative behind it. You citing this very text shows that their manipulation of your mind was successful.
(post is archived)