(((They))) will argue that this only applies to the person holding slaves being deprived of said slaves. I see it as the sword cutting both ways though.
If that were true it wouldn't be worded both ways but that is one part of it.
Neither the US nor any state shall assume pay any claim for loss ... of any slave.
slave owner loses slave and thus value
and
Neither the US nor any state shall assume pay any claim for the emancipation of any slave.
slave had lost freedom and emancipation is enough.
What about the individual (tax payer) being responsible then ?.
While it may be payed by the tax payer, it's the government paying. The government would never be so audacious to just take individual people's money in a way other than (((taxes))). How would that even work? Nobody would pay a dime to that, even if the law says they were required to.
(post is archived)