The Bible talks about gays trying to fuck a couple guys, but it obviously isn't condoning it.
Are you saying that these greek writers condone sodomy?
Quite literally said that it doesn't mean that Xenophon was OK with it...
All you had to do was read. That's it.
You said "it doesn't mean that..." But it sure seems like you were trying to support the arguement that they condoned it.
So do you believe the Greeks largely condoned sodomy?
You're actually an idiot.
"Xenophon had a passage in his book that xyz...but that doesn't mean that he was OK with it."
Where's the confusion, smoothbrain?
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