I read an english translation a very long time ago. I was not looking for the homo so I did not see it, but there was was enough *there* for other ancient writers to argue over it, and for later treatments to make explicit what may or may not have been implied. But if homer does not explicitly say they were homos, you have to ask yourself why he did not, if he indeed intended to cast them as homos. Why do you write two homo characters but not actually say they are homo? Perhaps because there is widespread disapproval of homo?