Why, that’s two states, being, by definition, multiple states.
If that massive election fraud occurred after Election Day, then, according to a 1997 US Supreme Court 9-0 ruling, no post-Election Day votes of any type in any state may be considered legitimate.
But will and/or shall a big enough metaphorical gun be put to the head of the sitting US Supreme Court, to convince them to acknowledge said 9-0 1997 ruling as an irrefutable precedent and/or mandate?
And will and/or shall the trigger on aforementioned metaphorical gun be pulled, should they prove themselves to be serving foreign enemy interests?
Curious & Queer!
(post is archived)