Well there are some groups like the Mixtec that aren't really that mixed. Mexico does have Indians even now.
Also: it's not all rape? In Canada and the US a lot of early fur traders formed families with native women. It was very hard to get European women, especially from good families & with good reputations, to go all the way from the UK or France to the New World. Also, some chiefs were willing to form alliances and what better way than to essentially marry your daughter off to one of the newcomers. Now they're family, they're incentivized to get along with you.
I don't know as much about the South American context. Of course there was rape, there's always some rape, right? It's the human condition that some people do that. But there also had to be some real family-style relationships happening. Because again, no women were going to be really eager to go far away from their family, catch a tropical disease and die in childbirth without so much as a priest around to give them last rites. Women tend to look much more for stability than for adventure.
That's what disturbs me about the whole discourse lately. It's all REEEE I'M A VICTIM. And this is like white people claiming a bunch of people who don't even exist anymore (tribes from SoCal) are still there and still important. If they don't have that group they'll reclassify someone else into it, just to get their SJW fix. It's fucking bizarre.
The French and Spanish (Catholics) intermarried with the AmerInd. Not only for the reason you mention, but because it was not forbidden piously. The English however did not and it was considered a taboo. During this era, the 7th Commandment was understood to mean 'not to racially adulterate'. The interpretation can be easily verified.
The British definitely formed families with them and typically went back home to formally marry a white girl after several years. There's a famous case in Canada where the son of a white guy brought a case against his Dad. IIRC they made him pay support to his former common law wife.
That's not what I said though. I said it was it was considered taboo by the English. This was due to their religious mores. There were indeed instances of intermarriage, but these English were chiefly ostracized within the community. Contrarily, with both the French and Spanish, it was far more prevalent. Both these countries were heavily influenced by Catholicism, which teaches the 'Universal man' doctrine. This was not prevalent in England and several other northern European nations.
I thought we were talking about mexico
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