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[–] • 1 pt 4y

You need to read King Manassah and Child Sacrifice to get some basis of history of who the Jews were as an outside roaming mystic tribe that didn't originate in the Levant.

Summarize the relevant bits here, please. In addition to demonstrating good faith, it also demonstrates your knowledge of the material you are trying to cite.

[...] that didn't originate in the Levant. [...] claim of Phoenicians as Aryans is well researched [...]

The problem is that we actually have a complete lineage from the Phoenician Empire to the (relatively) modern East India Company, from Egypt and it's fall, and the rise of Carthage, to the 'enlightenment' of Greece (where records on western Alchemy and science generally begin, along with the first good historical records), to the fall of the Vatican to the 'jews' (Medici), etc.

The lineage is the binder - we know those who call themselves jews now and who generally run the world are not Aryan, and thus we know their whole lineage and bloodline isn't as well.

 

By the way, India was one of the earliest to fall to the Phoenician empire. Most of ancient India's place names and language is Hebrew by another name - look it up (e.g. this link)(viewzone.com). This makes most of their history (especially before 'modern' times) suspect as well. To try to make an argument using the history of just a handful of countries is myopic - you can't discern forgery that way.

[–] [deleted] • 0 pt 4y

There is a very large fallacy with what you and your link are trying to say. The Semitic language was adopted by Jews but it wasn't created by Jews and therefore any Semitic or Phoenician reference around the world isn't a reference to the Jews. You need to understand the Rigveda to know that the Aryans split up, with the Phoenicians settling in the Levant and the other Aryans in northern Europe.

The Jews were a migrating people from North Africa that moved to the Levant also crossed into the Arabian Peninsula. They adopted the regional language which was prominent due to the Phoenicians having already established presence in North Africa before and during the rise of the Egyptian kingdoms. Phoenicians were around way longer than the mystic Jews of the desert.

[–] • 1 pt 4y

There is a very large fallacy with what you and your link are trying to say.

I knew better than to even include that tidbit, as it isn't as well evidenced as the main argument, nor is it even related to the main argument, and I knew you would latch onto that as the basis of your reply. For clarity's sake:

The main argument: the lineage from the Phoenicians seafaring empire to the modern 'jewish' shipping/trading/warfare empires (e.g. (((the Vanderbilts, the Schiffs))), et. al.) is unbroken .

The aside: it is futile to assume any country's distant history is valid, especially in the face of evidence or deliberate falsification and deliberate destruction. Further, our primary and *only* method of discovering forgery is to compare the histories of countries to each other, especially countries warring or otherwise enemies. Finally, there is evidence to suggest the Indians were sacked at some point too, which should cause extra suspicion.

You need to understand the Rigveda

The Vedas are all numbered in hymn and verse - it should be dead easy to cite. Please provide cites.

The Jews were a migrating people from North Africa that moved to the Levant also crossed into the Arabian Peninsula.

This is also one I'm very curious about. I have made it a passion of mine to study the oldest source texts for our history, the origins of our philosophy, and our science, and haven't even seen a text anywhere near the time frame of interest here. Again, if you are anywhere out of proximity of recent history, forgery becomes very common.

Even the bible, known as the 'best preserved' ancient text, is rife with forgery after the Catholic Church lost most of the books during the dark ages. They offered huge bounties, roughly equivalent to a years pay at hard labor, and thus forgery was a huge business, which the Church then tried to root out. The vedas had no such organization maintaining them and claim to be even older, so do try to be reasonable here.

They adopted the regional language which was prominent due to the Phoenicians

This is supposition. I've personally studied this, trying to determine which was a precursor to which, and there are no records, only more supposition. Do keep that in mind.

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[–] • 0 pt 4y

I have made it a passion of mine to study the oldest source texts for our history, the origins of our philosophy, and our science

Would love to hear what you think about our origins and what the true history really is as most leads ends with Sumeria, Egypt, or India and then its stitching it together from there.