This was written by a jew faggot with no understanding of history. Judea had been completely hellenized 400 years before Christ. Everyone spoke Greek. Jesus predicated in Greek. The day to day administration and market language was Greek.
Saying the NT was written in Aramaic and Jesus predicated in Aramaic is like saying that a Navajo indian went up and down the East coast of the US in 2021, predicated in Navajo, and managed to draw large crowds and destabalize the power structure in the region.
It's faggot talk for faggot listeners without a brain for critical thought.
It's even crazier than that. Read the book "Hebrew is Greek" if you want to go down the rabbit hole further. The real ancient hebrews were Eastern Greeks who mingled in Asia Minor with the Eastern religions and thoughts, which is why they were the first Westerners who practiced mono-theism.
Act 1:19 And it was known unto all the dwellers at Jerusalem; insomuch as that field is called in their proper tongue, Aceldama, that is to say, The field of blood.
Vincent’s Word Studies, available on many Bible software programs, tells us: “Akeldamach. The word is Aramaic, the language then spoken in Palestine.“
Robertson’s Word Pictures tells us: “Language (dialektōi). Not a dialect of the Greek, but a different language, the Aramaic.“
The position of the Assyrian Church of the East is that the Syriac Peshitta used in that church, is the original of the New Testament. For instance, the patriarch Shimun XXI Eshai declared: “With reference to… the originality of the Peshitta text, as the Patriarch and Head of the Holy Apostolic and Catholic Church of the East, we wish to state, that the Church of the East received the scriptures from the hands of the blessed Apostles themselves in the Aramaic original, the language spoken by our Lord Jesus Christ Himself, and that the Peshitta is the text of the Church of the East which has come down from the Biblical times without any change or revision.” (April 5, 1957)
We find this fact in the Jerusalem Bible of 1966:
“An anonymous editor, Matthew Greek, decided to rewrite the first Aramaic gospel, which was known to him in one of its Greek translations. This he filled out and made more detailed, using for his narrative parts of the work of Mark his predecessor, to which he added one thing of importance, i.e. the two chapters of the infancy narrative.“
We see here the Jerusalem Bible declaring Matthew was originally in Aramaic, that the two chapters of the infancy narrative are not original to the Aramaic, and that Matthew is but the ‘first’ of other Aramaic gospels.
I could post a thousand more, but YOU DON'T CARE. You're stuck in your corruption, so enjoy.
Matthew 27:46
About the ninth hour Jesus cried out in a loud voice, “Eli, Eli, lema sabachthani?” which means, “My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?”
https://biblehub.com/matthew/27-46.htm
Funny how the NT uses Aramaic words and then translates them in the text for you for the scant times Jesus spoke Aramaic in public.
Almost like it was written in Greek, for Greek speakers.
LOL! Almost like an Edomite Jew wanted to rub it in your face they CHANGED THE ORIGINAL TEXT, you mean.
DAMN FOOL! Already pointed out other passages where it is KNOWN that they did that.
Read the book lazy nigger.
AND ... I already explained, the Peshitta IS NOT THE ORIGINAL ARAMAIC/HEBREW SOURCE of the New testament. But even it does NOT AGREE with the wording of the passage YOU just gave.
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