Where does it end? One of the biggest BS statements in logical theory is that the slippery slope is a non-argument. I have not seen a case where the slippery slope wasn't true and points to an example of academic subversion.
Where does it end? One of the biggest BS statements in logical theory is that the slippery slope is a non-argument. I have not seen a case where the slippery slope wasn't true and points to an example of academic subversion.
(post is archived)