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[–] 1 pt

What does that mean in English?

[–] [deleted] 1 pt (edited )

They use clines (gene flow) in such a way make it impossible to say that a circle cannot be drawn around a cluster of like genes in one population can't include genes in another population. This is a matter of which genes are selected, such as only picking the genes that determine variation for fingers, toes, and belly buttons.

This is a another fallacy (but not the lewontin-fallacy). Then they say the science says that all human differences are on continuum or spectrum of gene expression (because we all have eyeballs, toes, and fingers, and that no biological or physical expression is unique to any population. Then they say that since their is no physical appearance or biological difference between an expression in any one human population that can't be found in anther population, then all human differences are just the result of psycho-social differences or 'culture'.

REFUTING A BIGOT: DAVID PAKMAN ON RACE AND IQ https://www.bitchute.com/video/a5muVMrLiso/

A side note is that after Darwin setting the precedent for evolution and genetic based answers to the taxonomy of all living things which was called Scientific Racism. Scientific Racism had some ideas on human genetics that what is the best way to produce the healthiest organism of a species. This became mutated into Joseph Mengele and a 'burn the astronaut' idea of Eugenics, (some of this came earlier some of it came later)

Frans Boas and Margret Mead returned all that all human cultures were equal and were only limited by environment. We get comparisons that the Aztec civilization was greater than Western culture. They became the heads of all Anthropology departments in America which then spawned in the universities later that genetics don't reflect human differences today.