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I was discussing was trying to discuss N.S. Germany with a coworker and the subject of the labor based currency came up (for example, 1 dollar equals 1 hour of work or goods produced). My coworker had apparently already heard about it, and went on about how it somehow ended with N.S. Germany having hyperinflation at the end and that it would never work. He was not exactly clear why, and I could not find any information about N.S. Germany having hyperinflation, only the (((Weimar Republic))).

Still, I have never heard about hyperinflation in the Reich before. Is there any truth to this guy's claim or is he just running his mouth?

I was discussing was trying to discuss N.S. Germany with a coworker and the subject of the labor based currency came up (for example, 1 dollar equals 1 hour of work or goods produced). My coworker had apparently already heard about it, and went on about how it somehow ended with N.S. Germany having hyperinflation at the end and that it would never work. He was not exactly clear why, and I could not find any information about N.S. Germany having hyperinflation, only the (((Weimar Republic))). Still, I have never heard about hyperinflation in the Reich before. Is there any truth to this guy's claim or is he just running his mouth?

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Thank you for the in depth reply.

Just copy/pasta from the link. I was curious so I did a quick search.

Is it saying that money was no longer important because the rationed goods themselves became harder to get?

That's essentially what I got out of it. Between Germany's fixed pricing and rationing, inflation can't get much traction with scarcity as a result. People had savings, they had the money to buy, if it was available.