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I was discussing was trying to discuss N.S. Germany with a coworker and the subject of the labor based currency came up (for example, 1 dollar equals 1 hour of work or goods produced). My coworker had apparently already heard about it, and went on about how it somehow ended with N.S. Germany having hyperinflation at the end and that it would never work. He was not exactly clear why, and I could not find any information about N.S. Germany having hyperinflation, only the (((Weimar Republic))).

Still, I have never heard about hyperinflation in the Reich before. Is there any truth to this guy's claim or is he just running his mouth?

I was discussing was trying to discuss N.S. Germany with a coworker and the subject of the labor based currency came up (for example, 1 dollar equals 1 hour of work or goods produced). My coworker had apparently already heard about it, and went on about how it somehow ended with N.S. Germany having hyperinflation at the end and that it would never work. He was not exactly clear why, and I could not find any information about N.S. Germany having hyperinflation, only the (((Weimar Republic))). Still, I have never heard about hyperinflation in the Reich before. Is there any truth to this guy's claim or is he just running his mouth?

(post is archived)

[–] 0 pt

>Those things, like welfare, are not economic policy in nature

So you are full blown retarded.

Nigger, you downvote me everytime I disagree with you. I just do it back to you now because I know it triggers you. Nobody "follows you around". You aren't that important, get over yourself.

Social policies are economic policies when the government enacts them, because funds must be allocated, and that is done through an economic lense. It's not circular logic, because an economic policy isn't necessarily a social policy. But I wouldn't expect you to understand basic logic.