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I was discussing was trying to discuss N.S. Germany with a coworker and the subject of the labor based currency came up (for example, 1 dollar equals 1 hour of work or goods produced). My coworker had apparently already heard about it, and went on about how it somehow ended with N.S. Germany having hyperinflation at the end and that it would never work. He was not exactly clear why, and I could not find any information about N.S. Germany having hyperinflation, only the (((Weimar Republic))).

Still, I have never heard about hyperinflation in the Reich before. Is there any truth to this guy's claim or is he just running his mouth?

I was discussing was trying to discuss N.S. Germany with a coworker and the subject of the labor based currency came up (for example, 1 dollar equals 1 hour of work or goods produced). My coworker had apparently already heard about it, and went on about how it somehow ended with N.S. Germany having hyperinflation at the end and that it would never work. He was not exactly clear why, and I could not find any information about N.S. Germany having hyperinflation, only the (((Weimar Republic))). Still, I have never heard about hyperinflation in the Reich before. Is there any truth to this guy's claim or is he just running his mouth?

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From a consumer perspective "the store has many cases of beans, because the money is worth less than years past each case is now $200" and "the allies blew up the cannery, and the railway from the farmlands, the store barely has any beans and to prevent resource hoarding each can is now $20" certainly would feel similar.