The word “jew” is a mistranslation of the word Judean.
Yes which I also noted prior.
Judea was the “seat of power” for Israel
Which wasn't a "jewish" (pharisees) city. It was White. https://pic8.co/sh/lfwzL3.jpg
The whole nation, top to bottom, was in apostasy, led that way by Judea, much the way DC continues to lead America astray from its small but significant geographic foothold. The “synagogue of Satan” was precisely this. It was the formerly Judean leadership, scattered after the razing of Jerusalem in AD 70, consumed with evil, having rejected God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit.
This doesn't make sense. It was scattered due to jews' wanton destruction of the "Christian" (obviously not as is), White land.
The Synagogue of satan was not Judean at all, not even slightly. It was jewish phraisees (I don't know how to tense this word)
So basically, Jesus was born into an Aryan tribe that was subverted by "jews" and was killed by "jews" for calling them out?
Yes. When I finally started to understand Rev 3:9 and 2:9 and their having predicted the "fellow whites" and applied that to Judeans and th fact that jews' own admittance over israel is but a . (read more than the outlined part, it's there but not outlined)
So basically jews are degenerate cannibalistic satan (moloch) worshiping gypsies?
My friends who are Christians say that Old testament is jewed and should not be observed, and that the New one is the real deal. Since you are obviously more knowledge on the topic than them or me what is your take on this?
(post is archived)