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Never thought about it much but seems curiously bullshit and man made

Never thought about it much but seems curiously bullshit and man made

(post is archived)

[–] 0 pt

Jesus spoke Aramaic, not Greek, and said 'Kepha' both times.

Also realize Jesus is God and therefore omnipotent. He would have known at the time at if he worded anything ambiguously, people would do the wrong thing for 2000 years. I think he wouldn't have been ambiguous.

[–] 1 pt (edited )

Odd, we don't call him Simon Kepha for some reason. Maybe because Greek was used for the wordplay. So while Jesus spoke in Aramaic he used Greek at this point. Also, since scripture is inspired by God, He had Matthew write Petros and Petras in the Greek text (Matthew wrote his gospel in Greek).