The Catholic church had political power, so it's corruption was inevitable. Catholicism is first and foremost an ideology created to unite the Roman Empire, or at the least prevent is fragmentation. When Christianity's popularity grew, it started to come in to conflict with Rome's Pagan beliefs. Christianity had a lot of appeal to people of the era since it allowed forgiveness, didn't require annual sacrifices, and didn't have a priest class (initially) that acted as door keepers. Of course there were plenty of Romans who believed in the old Pagan traditions and wished to keep them, which posed a threat to internal stability. Catholocism was a fix because it incorporated Pagan aspects in to the Christian message, it was kind of a "Oh the Pagans already thought this, this was just their interpretation" which is not completely unfounded since Aryan/Indo-European culture shared a lot of ideals with Christianity, which is likely why it took off in Europe so much quicker and with less blood than in other places. Now on to the JQ and Catholic Church.The Catholic Church had political authority, a lot of it in fact. Like many corrupt political organizations, it didn't start corrupt. Usury is banned in the Torah, and thus Bible and Quran. Since usury was illegal, the church worked with the Jews to accumulate wealth, much like gentile politicians to this day do. The deal was essentially the Jews could practice their banking, but in return the church had to get a cut. The church still held political power however, but that would change by the time the Protestant Reformation hit. After the Protestant Reformation, the church lost a considerable amount of political power, and the Jews were essentially free to do what they do best in the regions the Catholic and Orthodox churches did not control. It is not a coincidence all these banking dynasties popped up shortly after the Protestant Reformation within Protestant nations (where the church had little political power) modern Germany, modern Britain, etc. Now comes the question "So if usury is illegal in the Torah, why do Orthodox Jews, let alone secular, do it all the time?" and that comes down to the Talmud. The Torah, the holy book of the Israelites, quite clearly lays out the rules Moses brought down from Mt. Sinai (whether he himself carved them, or God did, is up to your faith), there are no questions about things. The Talmud states that in addition to these written rules, there are also oral ones that the sages/pharisees/rabbis (w/e you want to say, same group) pass down and are allowed to change. For example, one of the commandments in the Talmud is to wash your hands before eating, perfectly fine advice, however... much like the Catholic Church, power corrupts and the Israelites ruling class quickly began adding lots of rules that enslaved others and benefited themselves. The Talmud as a book would not be written until ~200 AD, but these oral laws the sages used had been around since Israel had been founded, starting with solid advice (i.e. wash your hands before eating) and slowly becoming worse as corruption grew (i.e. you can rape little girls of they are goyim). The reason Jesus was hated was because his message was essentially "fuck the corrupt sages, just follow the Torah". Jesus would later be viewed by many Israelis (mostly ethnic "Jews" since the other tribes were slaughtered by the Assyrians, and only the tribe of Judah remained) as the messiah and they would go on to follow his teachings which would result in the creation of Christianity. So that begs the next question "Well why did Jews break of from the Israelites?" The thing about the tribe of Judah, was it was not completely on board with the reformation the Israelites went through. Keep in mind there are not 613 commandments, not 10, and many of those commandments might seem laughable today, ones such as "Don't fuck family members" or "Don't sacrifice kids to Moloch", were very real things then. So we have 11 tribes who are going through with the reformation, with another tribe (Judah) that refuses to and would rather stick to the old ways (hence why they are inbred, perform ritualistic sacrifices, commit usury, etc.). How did the Jews come to "rule the Israelites"? Well the Assyrians destroyed Israel, only Judah remained, they were the de-facto ruler of the surviving Israelites, many of who fled to gentile nations (likely anywhere the Phonetician traveled since Israel and Phoenicia were neighbors and borderline one nation) as well as Judah. They were all displeased with who ruled Judah, as Judah's ruling class practiced kabbalah and shit like that and just made up commandments whenever it was convenient (the Talmud has thousands), even Judean citizens themselves were. Once they saw a way out (i.e. teachings of Jesus, whether he was the son of God, or merely some guy who challenged the system) they took it. This is why Christianity became a strong ideological movement ~2000 years ago, plus since it abolished the concept of gentile, anyone could follow it. For Christianity to be considered a Jewish psyop, the following would have to be true. 1: The pharisees would have to willingly risk losing their power by creating an *ideology* that combats them (this is also why I believe Hitler was *not* a Zionist agent) 2: The pharisees would have had to predict that in ~1500 years those "northern barbarian tribes" would become the most powerful people on Earth (something I find hard to believe considering their superiority complex) 3: The pharisees would of had to appeal to the Romans, something base-line Christianity didn't (It did the Greeks, but in the West it needed to be shaped in to Catholicism first). I find all of those beyond the Jews capabilities honestly. However that's my take. I am agnostic, but due have an interest in history in general, including religious (religion and politics were one in the same up until a couple centuries ago) I figured I would say what I know/think. I make no claims of being an expert.